Why is the restoration of a previous marriage sin and an abomination to God? All Scripture is profitable so I'm sure that there is a benefit in considering this.

One way to look at this would be to consider of all the men in Israel who could this remarried (but now single) woman marry and who could she not marry.

She could not marry her former husband, nor her close relatives, nor a priest. She could marry any other man (even if he had another wife).

To me the restriction is because her former husband still has a "one flesh" relationship with her but because the marriage was ended by her remarriage her former husband has become like a close relative to her.

Besides her former husband (singular) there are two groups (plural) of men that she can't marry. I don't think it is a stretch to believe that after a divorce and remarriage her former husband is put into one of these groups of men. The only one that makes sense is the close relative group. Her husband did not become a priest through her divorce and remarriage.

Deut. 24:1-4 If a man marries a woman who becomes displeasing to him because he finds something indecent about her, and he writes her a certificate of divorce, gives it to her and sends her from his house, [2] and if after she leaves his house she becomes the wife of another man, [3] and her second husband dislikes her and writes her a certificate of divorce, gives it to her and sends her from his house, or if he dies, [4] then her first husband, who divorced her, is not allowed to marry her again after she has been defiled. That would be detestable in the eyes of the Lord. Do not bring sin upon the land the Lord your God is giving you as an inheritance.

Jeremiah 3:1 "If a man divorces his wife and she leaves him and marries another man, should he return to her again? Would not the land be completely defiled? But you have lived as a prostitute with many lovers--would you now return to me?" declares the Lord.

Note that the Deut 24 passage is written like a logic statement:
If a man marries ...
and [if] he writes her a certificate of divorce ...
and if after she leaves his house ...
and [if] her second husband ...
then her first husband ...

Now being a computer programmer I write logic statements like this all the time. The way I'm reading this only the last "then" statement is the point of the passage (it is the restriction).

I'm wondering if the "permission of Moses allowing divorce" was something given verbally or if it was written down outside of the Bible? I don't think the "if, and if, and if" part of the passage is giving any permission. Rather it is only there as needed to show what leads to the restriction.

This view also lines up better with my view of the consistency of God. Where did He ever give a commandment that allowed a sinful practice? He did not reveal all the sinful practices in the OT, but I think it would be inconsistent if He gave a law or a command that encouraged such.

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